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Showing posts with label CCNA 1 v6. Show all posts
Showing posts with label CCNA 1 v6. Show all posts

CCNA1 v6.0 Chapter 7 Exam Answers

1. How many bits are in an IPv4 address?

32*
64
128
256

2. Which two parts are components of an IPv4 address? (Choose two.)

subnet portion
network portion*
logical portion
host portion*
physical portion
broadcast portion

3. What does the IP address 172.17.4.250/24 represent?

network address
multicast address
host address*
broadcast address

4. What is the purpose of the subnet mask in conjunction with an IP address?

to uniquely identify a host on a network
to identify whether the address is public or private
to determine the subnet to which the host belongs*
to mask the IP address to outsiders

5. What subnet mask is represented by the slash notation /20?

255.255.255.248
255.255.224.0
255.255.240.0*
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.192

6. A message is sent to all hosts on a remote network. Which type of message is it?

limited broadcast
multicast
directed broadcast*
unicast

7. What are three characteristics of multicast transmission? (Choose three.)

The source address of a multicast transmission is in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.
A single packet can be sent to a group of hosts.*
Multicast transmission can be used by routers to exchange routing information.*
The range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255 is reserved to reach multicast groups on a local network.*
Computers use multicast transmission to request IPv4 addresses.
Multicast messages map lower layer addresses to upper layer addresses.

8. Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)

10.1.1.1*
172.32.5.2
192.167.10.10
172.16.4.4*
192.168.5.5*
224.6.6.6

9. Which two IPv4 to IPv6 transition techniques manage the interconnection of IPv6 domains? (Choose two.)

trunking
dual stack*
encapsulation
tunneling*
multiplexing

10. Which of these addresses is the shortest abbreviation for the IP address:

3FFE : 1044 : 0000 : 0000 : 00AB : 0000 : 0000 : 0057?

3FFE : 1044 :: AB :: 57
3FFE : 1044 :: 00AB :: 0057
3FFE : 1044 : 0 : 0 : AB :: 57*
3FFE : 1044 : 0 : 0 : 00AB :: 0057
3FFE : 1044 : 0000 : 0000 : 00AB :: 57
3FFE : 1044 : 0000 : 0000 : 00AB :: 0057

11. What type of address is automatically assigned to an interface when IPv6 is enabled on that interface?

global unicast
link-local*
loopback
unique local

12. What are two types of IPv6 unicast addresses? (Choose two.)

multicast
loopback*
link-local*
anycast
broadcast

13. What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)

an interface ID that is used to identify the local network for a particular host
a global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of the address that has been provided by an ISP*
a subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local enterprise site*
a global routing prefix that is used to identify the portion of the network address provided by a local administrator
an interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network*

14. An administrator wants to configure hosts to automatically assign IPv6 addresses to themselves by the use of Router Advertisement messages, but also to obtain the DNS server address from a DHCPv6 server. Which address assignment method should be configured?

SLAAC
stateless DHCPv6*
stateful DHCPv6
RA and EUI-64

15. Which protocol supports Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC) for dynamic assignment of IPv6 addresses to a host?

ARPv6
DHCPv6
ICMPv6*
UDP

16. Which two things can be determined by using the ping command? (Choose two.)

the number of routers between the source and destination device
the IP address of the router nearest the destination device
the average time it takes a packet to reach the destination and for the response to return to the source*
the destination device is reachable through the network*
the average time it takes each router in the path between source and destination to respond

17. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?

to inform routers about network topology changes
to ensure the delivery of an IP packet
to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions*
to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution

18. What is indicated by a successful ping to the ::1 IPv6 address?

The host is cabled properly.
The default gateway address is correctly configured.
All hosts on the local link are available.
The link-local address is correctly configured.
IP is properly installed on the host.*

19. A user is executing a tracert to a remote device. At what point would a router, which is in the path to the destination device, stop forwarding the packet?

when the router receives an ICMP Time Exceeded message
when the RTT value reaches zero
when the host responds with an ICMP Echo Reply message
when the value in the TTL field reaches zero*
when the values of both the Echo Request and Echo Reply messages reach zero

20. What field content is used by ICMPv6 to determine that a packet has expired?

TTL field
CRC field
Hop Limit field*
Time Exceeded field

21. Fill in the blank.

The decimal equivalent of the binary number 10010101 is 149 .


22. Fill in the blank.
The binary equivalent of the decimal number 232 is 11101000

23. Fill in the blank.
What is the decimal equivalent of the hex number 0x3F? 63


24. Match each description with an appropriate IP address. (Not all options are used.)



Posted in  on March 23, 2018 by ad |  

CCNA1 v6.0 Chapter 8 Exam Answers

1. What is a result of connecting two or more switches together?

The number of broadcast domains is increased.
The size of the broadcast domain is increased.*
The number of collision domains is reduced.
The size of the collision domain is increased.

2. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains are there?



1
2
3
4*

3. What are two reasons a network administrator might want to create subnets? (Choose two.)

simplifies network design
improves network performance*
easier to implement security policies*
reduction in number of routers needed
reduction in number of switches needed

4. Refer to the exhibit. A company uses the address block of 128.107.0.0/16 for its network. What subnet mask would provide the maximum number of equal size subnets while providing enough host addresses for each subnet in the exhibit?



255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128*
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240

5. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the LAN of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 prefix. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the properties of the workgroup server to allow connectivity to the Internet?



IP address: 192.168.10.65 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240, default gateway: 192.168.10.76
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240, default gateway: 192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248, default gateway: 192.168.10.33*
IP address: 192.168.10.41 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248, default gateway: 192.168.10.46
IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0, default gateway: 192.168.10.1

6. If a network device has a mask of /28, how many IP addresses are available for hosts on this network?

256
254
62
32
16
14*

7. Which subnet mask would be used if 5 host bits are available?

255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.224*
255.255.255.240

8. How many host addresses are available on the network 172.16.128.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.252.0?

510
512
1022*
1024
2046
2048

9. How many bits must be borrowed from the host portion of an address to accommodate a router with five connected networks?

two
three*
four
five

10. A network administrator wants to have the same network mask for all networks at a particular small site. The site has the following networks and number of devices:
IP phones – 22 addresses
PCs – 20 addresses needed
Printers – 2 addresses needed
Scanners – 2 addresses needed

The network administrator has deemed that 192.168.10.0/24 is to be the network used at this site. Which single subnet mask would make the most efficient use of the available addresses to use for the four subnetworks?

255.255.255.0
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224*
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.252

11. A company has a network address of 192.168.1.64 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. The company wants to create two subnetworks that would contain 10 hosts and 18 hosts respectively. Which two networks would achieve that? (Choose two.)

192.168.1.16/28
192.168.1.64/27*
192.168.1.128/27
192.168.1.96/28*
192.168.1.192/28

12. A network administrator is variably subnetting a network. The smallest subnet has a mask of 255.255.255.248. How many usable host addresses will this subnet provide?

4
6*
8
10
12

13. Refer to the exhibit.

Given the network address of 192.168.5.0 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224, how many total host addresses are unused in the assigned subnets?



56
60
64
68
72*

14. Refer to the exhibit. Considering the addresses already used and having to remain within the 10.16.10.0/24 network range, which subnet address could be assigned to the network containing 25 hosts?



10.16.10.160/26
10.16.10.128/28
10.16.10.64/27*
10.16.10.224/26
10.16.10.240/27
10.16.10.240/28

15. A network administrator needs to monitor network traffic to and from servers in a data center. Which features of an IP addressing scheme should be applied to these devices?

random static addresses to improve security
addresses from different subnets for redundancy
predictable static IP addresses for easier identification*
dynamic addresses to reduce the probability of duplicate addresses

16. Which two reasons generally make DHCP the preferred method of assigning IP addresses to hosts on large networks? (Choose two.)

It eliminates most address configuration errors.*
It ensures that addresses are only applied to devices that require a permanent address.
It guarantees that every device that needs an address will get one.
It provides an address only to devices that are authorized to be connected to the network.
It reduces the burden on network support staff.*

17. A DHCP server is used to assign IP addresses dynamically to the hosts on a network. The address pool is configured with 192.168.10.0/24. There are 3 printers on this network that need to use reserved static IP addresses from the pool. How many IP addresses in the pool are left to be assigned to other hosts?

254
251*
252
253

18. Refer to the exhibit. A company is deploying an IPv6 addressing scheme for its network. The company design document indicates that the subnet portion of the IPv6 addresses is used for the new hierarchical network design, with the site subsection to represent multiple geographical sites of the company, the sub-site section to represent multiple campuses at each site, and the subnet section to indicate each network segment separated by routers. With such a scheme, what is the maximum number of subnets achieved per sub-site?



0
4
16*
256

19. What is the prefix for the host address 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12AB::1/64?

2001:DB8:BC15
2001:DB8:BC15:A*
2001:DB8:BC15:A:1
2001:DB8:BC15:A:12

20. Consider the following range of addresses:

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A0:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A1:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A2:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00AF:0000::

The prefix-length for the range of addresses is /60


21. Match the subnetwork to a host address that would be included within the subnetwork. (Not all options are used.)


Place the options in the following order.
— not scored —
192.168.1.68 -> 192.168.1.64/27
— not scored —
192.168.1.48 -> 192.168.1.32/27
192.168.1.121 -> 192.168.1.96/27

22. Refer to the exhibit. Match the network with the correct IP address and prefix that will satisfy the usable host addressing requirements for each network. (Not all options are used.)


Posted in  on March 23, 2018 by ad |  

CCNA1 v6.0 Chapter 10 Exam Answers

1. Which two definitions accurately describe the associated application layer protocol? (Choose two.)

SMTP – transfers web pages from web servers to clients
Telnet – provides remote access to servers and networking devices*
DNS – resolves Internet names to IP addresses*
FTP – transfers email messages and attachments
HTTP – enables devices on a network to obtain IP addresses

2. The application layer of the TCP/IP model performs the functions of what three layers of the OSI model? (Choose three.)

physical
session*
network
presentation*
data link
transport
application*

3. Which layer in the TCP/IP model is used for formatting, compressing, and encrypting data?

internetwork
session
presentation
application*
network access

4. What are two characteristics of the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)

responsibility for logical addressing
responsibility for physical addressing
the creation and maintenance of dialogue between source and destination applications*
closest to the end user*
the establishing of window size

5. A manufacturing company subscribes to certain hosted services from its ISP. The services that are required include hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail. Which protocols represent these three key applications? (Choose three.)

FTP*
HTTP*
DNS
SNMP
DHCP
SMTP*

6. What is an example of network communication that uses the client-server model?

A user uses eMule to download a file that is shared by a friend after the file location is determined.
A workstation initiates an ARP to find the MAC address of a receiving host.
A user prints a document by using a printer that is attached to a workstation of a coworker.
A workstation initiates a DNS request when the user types www.cisco.com in the address bar of a web browser.*

7. Two students are working on a network design project. One student is doing the drawing, while the other student is writing the proposal. The drawing is finished and the student wants to share the folder that contains the drawing so that the other student can access the file and copy it to a USB drive. Which networking model is being used?

peer-to-peer*
client-based
master-slave
point-to-point

8. What do the client/server and peer-to-peer network models have in common?

Both models have dedicated servers.
Both models support devices in server and client roles.*
Both models require the use of TCP/IP-based protocols.
Both models are used only in the wired network environment.

9. What is an advantage for small organizations of adopting IMAP instead of POP?

Messages are kept in the mail servers until they are manually deleted from the email client.*
When the user connects to a POP server, copies of the messages are kept in the mail server for a short time, but IMAP keeps them for a long time.
IMAP sends and retrieves email, but POP only retrieves email.
POP only allows the client to store messages in a centralized way, while IMAP allows distributed storage.

10. Which application layer protocol uses message types such as GET, PUT, and POST?

DNS
DHCP
SMTP
HTTP*
POP3

11. When retrieving email messages, which protocol allows for easy, centralized storage and backup of emails that would be desirable for a small- to medium-sized business?

IMAP*
POP
SMTP
HTTPS

12. Which three statements describe a DHCP Discover message? (Choose three.)

The source MAC address is 48 ones (FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF).
The destination IP address is 255.255.255.255.*
The message comes from a server offering an IP address.
The message comes from a client seeking an IP address.*
All hosts receive the message, but only a DHCP server replies.*
Only the DHCP server receives the message.

13. What part of the URL, http://www.cisco.com/index.html, represents the top-level DNS domain?

.com*
www
http
index

14. Which two tasks can be performed by a local DNS server? (Choose two.)

providing IP addresses to local hosts
allowing data transfer between two network devices
mapping name-to-IP addresses for internal hosts*
forwarding name resolution requests between servers*
retrieving email messages

15. Which phrase describes an FTP daemon?

a diagnostic FTP program
a program that is running on an FTP server*
a program that is running on an FTP client
an application that is used to request data from an FTP server

16. Which statement is true about FTP?

The client can choose if FTP is going to establish one or two connections with the server.
The client can download data from or upload data to the server.*
FTP is a peer-to-peer application.
FTP does not provide reliability during data transmission.

17. What is true about the Server Message Block protocol?

Different SMB message types have a different format.
Clients establish a long term connection to servers.*
SMB messages cannot authenticate a session.
SMB uses the FTP protocol for communication.

18. Which application layer protocol is used to provide file-sharing and print services to Microsoft applications?

HTTP
SMTP
DHCP
SMB*

19. Fill in the blank.

What is the acronym for the protocol that is used when securely communicating with a web server? HTTPS


20. Fill in the blank.
The HTTP message type used by the client to request data from the web server is the GET message.


21. Fill in the blank.
Refer to the exhibit. What command was used to resolve a given host name by querying the name servers? NSLOOKUP



22. Match a statement to the related network model. (Not all options are used.)


Place the options in the following order:
peer-to-peer network
[+] no dedicated server is required
[+] client and server roles are set on a per request basis
peer-to-peer aplication
[#] requires a specific user interface
[#] a background service is required

23. Match the function to the name of the application. (Not all options are used.)


Place the options in the following order:
— not scored —
DHCP -> dynamically assigns IP address to clients
DNS -> maps URLs to numerical addresses
IMAP -> allows viewing of messages on email clients
HTTP -> displays web pages
SMTP -> sends email messages
— not scored —

24. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.


Which PC or PCs are sending FTP packets to the server?

PC_3
PC_1
PC_2*
PC_1 and PC_3
Posted in  on March 23, 2018 by ad |  

CCNA1 v6.0 Chapter 11 Exam Answers


1. A newly hired network technician is given the task of ordering new hardware for a small business with a large growth forecast. Which primary factor should the technician be concerned with when choosing the new devices?

devices with a fixed number and type of interfaces
devices that have support for network monitoring
redundant devices
devices with support for modularity*

2. Which network design consideration would be more important to a large corporation than to a small business?

Internet router
firewall
low port density switch
redundancy*

3. Which two traffic types require delay sensitive delivery? (Choose two.)

email
web
FTP
voice*
video*

4. A network administrator for a small company is contemplating how to scale the network over the next three years to accommodate projected growth. Which three types of information should be used to plan for network growth? (Choose three.)

human resource policies and procedures for all employees in the company
documentation of the current physical and logical topologies*
analysis of the network traffic based on protocols, applications, and services used on the network*
history and mission statement of the company
inventory of the devices that are currently used on the network*
listing of the current employees and their role in the company

5. Which two statements describe how to assess traffic flow patterns and network traffic types using a protocol analyzer? (Choose two.)

Capture traffic on the weekends when most employees are off work.
Only capture traffic in the areas of the network that receive most of the traffic such as the data center.
Capture traffic during peak utilization times to get a good representation of the different traffic types.*
Perform the capture on different network segments.*
Only capture WAN traffic because traffic to the web is responsible for the largest amount of traffic on a network.

6. Some routers and switches in a wiring closet malfunctioned after an air conditioning unit failed. What type of threat does this situation describe?

configuration
environmental*
electrical
maintenance

7. Which type of network threat is intended to prevent authorized users from accessing resources?

DoS attacks*
access attacks
reconnaissance attacks
trust exploitation

8. Which two actions can be taken to prevent a successful network attack on an email server account? (Choose two.)

Never send the password through the network in a clear text.*
Never use passwords that need the Shift key.
Use servers from different vendors.
Distribute servers throughout the building, placing them close to the stakeholders.
Limit the number of unsuccessful attempts to log in to the server.*

9. Which firewall feature is used to ensure that packets coming into a network are legitimate responses initiated from internal hosts?

application filtering
stateful packet inspection*
URL filtering
packet filtering

10. What is the purpose of the network security authentication function?

to require users to prove who they are*
to determine which resources a user can access
to keep track of the actions of a user
to provide challenge and response questions

11. A network administrator is issuing the login block-for 180 attempts 2 within 30 command on a router. Which threat is the network administrator trying to prevent?

a user who is trying to guess a password to access the router* 
a worm that is attempting to access another part of the network
an unidentified individual who is trying to access the network equipment room
a device that is trying to inspect the traffic on a link

12. What is the purpose of using SSH to connect to a router?

It allows a router to be configured using a graphical interface.
It allows a secure remote connection to the router command line interface.*
It allows the router to be monitored through a network management application.
It allows secure transfer of the IOS software image from an unsecure workstation or server.

13. Which two steps are required before SSH can be enabled on a Cisco router? (Choose two.)

Give the router a host name and domain name.*
Create a banner that will be displayed to users when they connect.
Generate a set of secret keys to be used for encryption and decryption.*
Set up an authentication server to handle incoming connection requests.
Enable SSH on the physical interfaces where the incoming connection requests will be received.

14. What is the purpose of issuing the commands cd nvram: then dir at the privilege exec mode of a router?

to clear the content of the NVRAM
to direct all new files to the NVRAM
to list the content of the NVRAM*
to copy the directories from the NVRAM

15. Which command will backup the configuration that is stored in NVRAM to a TFTP server?

copy running-config tftp
copy tftp running-config
copy startup-config tftp*
copy tftp startup-config

16. Refer to the exhibit. Baseline documentation for a small company had ping round trip time statistics of 36/97/132 between hosts H1 and H3. Today the network administrator checked connectivity by pinging between hosts H1 and H3 that resulted in a round trip time of 1458/2390/6066. What does this indicate to the network administrator?



Connectivity between H1 and H3 is fine.
H3 is not connected properly to the network.
Something is causing interference between H1 and R1.
Performance between the networks is within expected parameters.
Something is causing a time delay between the networks.*

17. When should an administrator establish a network baseline?

when the traffic is at peak in the network
when there is a sudden drop in traffic
at the lowest point of traffic in the network
at regular intervals over a period of time*

18. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to troubleshoot connectivity between PC1 and PC2 and uses the tracert command from PC1 to do it. Based on the displayed output, where should the administrator begin troubleshooting?



PC2
R1*
SW2
R2
SW1

19. Which statement is true about CDP on a Cisco device?

The show cdp neighbor detail command will reveal the IP address of a neighbor only if there is Layer 3 connectivity.
To disable CDP globally, the no cdp enable command in interface configuration mode must be used.
CDP can be disabled globally or on a specific interface.*
Because it runs at the data link layer, the CDP protocol can only be implemented in switches.

20. A network administrator for a small campus network has issued the show ip interface brief command on a switch. What is the administrator verifying with this command?

the status of the switch interfaces and the address configured on interface vlan 1*
that a specific host on another network can be reached
the path that is used to reach a specific host on another network
the default gateway that is used by the switch

21. A network technician issues the arp -d * command on a PC after the router that is connected to the LAN is reconfigured. What is the result after this command is issued?

The ARP cache is cleared.*
The current content of the ARP cache is displayed.
The detailed information of the ARP cache is displayed.
The ARP cache is synchronized with the router interface.

22. A network technician issues the C:\> tracert -6 www.cisco.com command on a Windows PC. What is the purpose of the -6 command option?

It forces the trace to use IPv6.*
It limits the trace to only 6 hops.
It sets a 6 milliseconds timeout for each replay.
It sends 6 probes within each TTL time period.

23. Which command should be used on a Cisco router or switch to allow log messages to be displayed on remotely connected sessions using Telnet or SSH?

debug all
logging synchronous
show running-config​
terminal monitor*

24. Fill in the blank.
VoIP defines the protocols and technologies that implement the transmission of voice data over an IP network

25. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.

The show file systems command provides information about the amount of free nvram and flash memory with the permissions for reading or writing data.

26. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.

The show version command that is issued on a router is used to verify the value of the software configuration register.

27. Match the type of information security threat to the scenario. (Not all options are used.)


Place the options in the following order.
installing virus code to destroy surveillance recordings for certain days -> data loss
pretending to be someone else by using stolen personal information to apply for a credit card ->identity theft
preventing userd from accessing a website by sending a large number of link requests in a short period -> disruption of service
obtaining trade secret documents illegally -> information theft
— not scored —

Posted in  on March 23, 2018 by ad |  

CCNA1 v6.0 Chapter 3 Exam Answers

1. What method can be used by two computers to ensure that packets are not dropped because too much data is being sent too quickly?

encapsulation
flow control*
access method
response timeout

2. What type of communication will send a message to all devices on a local area network?

broadcast*
multicast
unicast
allcast

3. What process is used to place one message inside another message for transfer from the source to the destination?

access control
decoding
encapsulation*
flow control

4. A web client is sending a request for a webpage to a web server. From the perspective of the client, what is the correct order of the protocol stack that is used to prepare the request for transmission?

HTTP, IP, TCP, Ethernet
HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet*
Ethernet, TCP, IP, HTTP
Ethernet, IP, TCP, HTTP

5. Which statement is correct about network protocols?

Network protocols define the type of hardware that is used and how it is mounted in racks.
They define how messages are exchanged between the source and the destination.*
They all function in the network access layer of TCP/IP.
They are only required for exchange of messages between devices on remote networks.

6. Which statement is true about the TCP/IP and OSI models?

The TCP/IP transport layer and OSI Layer 4 provide similar services and functions.*
The TCP/IP network access layer has similar functions to the OSI network layer.
The OSI Layer 7 and the TCP/IP application layer provide identical functions.
The first three OSI layers describe general services that are also provided by the TCP/IP internet layer.

7. What is an advantage of using standards to develop and implement protocols?

A particular protocol can only be implemented by one manufacturer.
Products from different manufacturers can interoperate successfully.*
Different manufacturers are free to apply different requirements when implementing a protocol.
Standards provide flexibility for manufacturers to create devices that comply with unique requirements.

8. What three application layer protocols are part of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose three.)

ARP
DHCP*
DNS*
FTP*
NAT
PPP

9. What are proprietary protocols?

protocols developed by private organizations to operate on any vendor hardware
protocols that can be freely used by any organization or vendor
protocols developed by organizations who have control over their definition and operation*
a collection of protocols known as the TCP/IP protocol suite

10. What is an advantage of network devices using open standard protocols?

Network communications is confined to data transfers between devices from the same vendor.
A client host and a server running different operating systems can successfully exchange data.*
Internet access can be controlled by a single ISP in each market.
Competition and innovation are limited to specific types of products.

11. Refer to the exhibit. If Host1 were to transfer a file to the server, what layers of the TCP/IP model would be used?

only application and Internet layers
only Internet and network access layers
only application, Internet, and network access layers
application, transport, Internet, and network access layers*
only application, transport, network, data link, and physical layers
application, session, transport, network, data link, and physical layers

12. Which three layers of the OSI model are comparable in function to the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

application*
presentation*
session*
transport
data link
physical
network

13. At which layer of the OSI model would a logical address be encapsulated?

physical layer
data link layer
network layer*
transport layer

14. Which PDU format is used when bits are received from the network medium by the NIC of a host?

file
frame*
packet
segment

15. Which PDU is processed when a host computer is de-encapsulating a message at the transport layer of the TCP/IP model?

bits
frame
packet
segment*

16. Refer to the exhibit. HostA is attempting to contact ServerB. Which two statements correctly describe the addressing that HostA will generate in the process? (Choose two.)

A packet with the destination IP address of RouterB.
A frame with the destination MAC address of SwitchA.
A packet with the destination IP address of RouterA.
A frame with the destination MAC address of RouterA.*
A packet with the destination IP address of ServerB.*
A frame with the destination MAC address of ServerB.

17. Which address does a NIC use when deciding whether to accept a frame?

source IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
destination MAC address*
source Ethernet address

18. What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?

The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.
The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.
The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway.
The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.*
A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.

19. Which characteristic describes the default gateway of a host computer?

the logical address of the router interface on the same network as the host computer*
the physical address of the switch interface connected to the host computer
the physical address of the router interface on the same network as the host computer
the logical address assigned to the switch interface connected to the router

20. Match each description to its corresponding term. (Not all options are used.)

message encoding  ->  the process of converting information from one format into another acceptable for transmission
message encapsulation  -> the process of placing one message format inside another message format
message sizing  ->  the process of breaking up a long message into individual pieces before being sent over the network

21. Match the protocol function to the description while taking into consideration that a network client is visiting a web site. (Not all options are used.)

governing the way a web server and a web client interact -> application protocol
talking the segments from the transport protocol, encapsulating them into packets, and assigning them with appropriate addresses -> internet protocol
preparing packets to be transmitted over the network media -> network access protocol
– not scored –
managing the individual conversation between web servers and web clients -> transport protocol

22. Match the description to the organization. (Not all options are used.)


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